i just saw somebody decompose the integrand
[math]\int_{0}^{\infty}{\frac{\sin^2(x)}{x^2(x^2+1)}}dx = \int_{0}^{\infty } \frac{\sin^2(x)}{x^2}dx - \int_{0}^{\infty } \frac{\sin^2(x)}{x^2+1}dx[/math]
is this okay in general or specific to improper integrals???
[math]\int_{0}^{\infty}{\frac{\sin^2(x)}{x^2(x^2+1)}}dx = \int_{0}^{\infty } \frac{\sin^2(x)}{x^2}dx - \int_{0}^{\infty } \frac{\sin^2(x)}{x^2+1}dx[/math]
is this okay in general or specific to improper integrals???